EMT Practice Test

1. Question Content...

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Question1: Message digests use which of the following?

Question2: Which option, when applied to a rule, allows traffic to VPN gateways in specific VPN communities?

Question3: VPN gateways must authenticate to each other prior to exchanging information. What are the two types of credentials used for authentication?

Question4: The IT Management team is interested in the new features of the Check Point R80 Management and wants to upgrade but they are concerned that the existing R77.30 Gaia Gateways cannot be managed by R80 because it is so different. As the administrator responsible for the Firewalls, how can you answer or confirm these concerns?

Question5: Fill in the blanks: The Application Layer Firewalls inspect traffic through the ________ layer(s) of the TCP/ IP model and up to and including the ________ layer.

Question6: Which of the following is NOT an option for internal network definition of Anti-spoofing?

Question7: Jack works for a managed service provider and he has been tasked to create 17 new policies for several new customers. He does not have much time. What is the BEST way to do this with R80 security management?

Question8: Which of the following is NOT a VPN routing option available in a star community?

Question9: What is NOT an advantage of Stateful Inspection?

Question10: When you upload a package or license to the appropriate repository in SmartUpdate, where is the package or license stored

Question11: Which rule is responsible for the user authentication failure?

Question12: Two administrators Dave and Jon both manage R80 Management as administrators for ABC Corp. Jon logged into the R80 Management and then shortly after Dave logged in to the same server. They are both in the Security Policies view. From the screenshots below, why does Dave not have the rule no.6 in his SmartConsole view even though Jon has it his in his SmartConsole view?

Question13: What SmartEvent component creates events?

Question14: Identify the ports to which the Client Authentication daemon listens on by default?

Question15: Which of the following is NOT defined by an Access Role object?

Question16: In Logging and Monitoring, the tracking options are Log, Detailed Log and Extended Log. Which of the following options can you add to each Log, Detailed Log and Extended Log?

Question17: What are the three tabs available in SmartView Tracker?

Question18: What Identity Agent allows packet tagging and computer authentication?

Question19: What are the three deployment considerations for a secure network?

Question20: Administrator wishes to update IPS from SmartConsole by clicking on the option "update now" under the IPS tab. Which device requires internet access for the update to work?

Question21: Which of the following is NOT a component of Check Point Capsule?

Question22: Fill in the blank: Authentication rules are defined for ____________.

Question23: Where does the security administrator activate Identity Awareness within SmartDashboard?

Question24: Fill in the blanks: There are ________ types of software containers ________.

Question25: How is communication between different Check Point components secured in R80? As with all questions, select the best answer.

Question26: What is the best sync method in the ClusterXL deployment?

Question27: Which of the following are available SmartConsole clients which can be installed from the R77 Windows CD? Read all answers and select the most complete and valid list.

Question28: What is the default shell for the command line interface?

Question29: By default, which port does the WebUI listen on?

Question30: Which of the following commands is used to monitor cluster members?

Question31: In the Check Point Security Management Architecture, which component(s) can store logs?

Question32: Which type of the Check Point license ties the package license to the IP address of the Security Management Server?

Question33: Fill in the blank: A new license should be generated and installed in all of the following situations EXCEPT when ________ .

Question34: Where can administrator edit a list of trusted SmartConsole clients in R80?

Question35: Which of the following ClusterXL modes uses a non-unicast MAC address for the cluster IP address.

Question36: You have configured SNX on the Security Gateway. The client connects to the Security Gateway and the user enters the authentication credentials. What must happen after authentication that allows the client to connect to the Security Gateway's VPN domain?

Question37: Where do we need to reset the SIC on a gateway object?

Question38: Which of the following Windows Security Events will NOT map a username to an IP address in Identity Awareness?

Question39: What is the order of NAT priorities?

Question40: John Adams is an HR partner in the ACME organization. ACME IT wants to limit access to HR servers to designated IP addresses to minimize malware infection and unauthorized access risks. Thus, gateway policy permits access only from Join's desktop which is assigned an IP address 10.0.0.19 via DHCP.
John received a laptop and wants to access the HR Web Server from anywhere in the organization. The IT department gave the laptop a static IP address, but the limits him to operating it only from his desk. The current Rule Base contains a rule that lets John Adams access the HR Web Server from his laptop. He wants to move around the organization and continue to have access to the HR Web Server.
To make this scenario work, the IT administrator:
1) Enables Identity Awareness on a gateway, selects AD Query as one of the Identity Sources.
2) Adds an access role object to the Firewall Rule Base that lets John Adams PC access the HR Web Server from any machine and from any location.
John plugged in his laptop to the network on a different network segment and he is not able to connect.
How does he solve this problem?

Question41: Which of the following is NOT a method used by Identity Awareness for acquiring identity?

Question42: Using mgmt_cli, what is the correct syntax to import a host object called Server_1 from the CLI?

Question43: Fill in the blanks: VPN gateways authenticate using ___________ and ___________ .

Question44: Choose the correct statement regarding Implicit Rules.

Question45: What component of R80 Management is used for indexing?

Question46: At what point is the Internal Certificate Authority (ICA) created?

Question47: The ______ software blade package uses CPU-level and OS-level sandboxing in order to detect and block malware.

Question48: You have two rules, ten users, and two user groups in a Security Policy. You create database version 1 for this configuration. You then delete two existing users and add a new user group. You modify one rule and add two new rules to the Rule Base. You save the Security Policy and create database version 2. After a while, you decide to roll back to version 1 to use the Rule Base, but you want to keep your user database.
How can you do this?

Question49: Which of the following is a new R80.10 Gateway feature that had not been available in R77.X and older?

Question50: Fill in the blank: By default, the SIC certificates issued by R80 Management Server are based on the
____________ algorithm.

Question51: Which of the following is NOT an identity source used for Identity Awareness?

Question52: Which of the following is NOT a set of Regulatory Requirements related to Information Security?

Question53: The CPD daemon is a Firewall Kernel Process that does NOT do which of the following?

Question54: Choose the SmartLog property that is TRUE.

Question55: Which of the following is a hash algorithm?

Question56: Fill in the blank: The R80 feature ________ permits blocking specific IP addresses for a specified time period.

Question57: What are the three components for Check Point Capsule?

Question58: You are the administrator for Alpha Corp. You have logged into your R80 Management server. You are making some changes in the Rule Base and notice that rule No.6 has a pencil icon next to it.

What does this mean?

Question59: Which the following type of authentication on Mobile Access can NOT be used as the first authentication method?

Question60: What is the benefit of Manual NAT over Automatic NAT?

Question61: During the Check Point Stateful Inspection Process, for packets that do not pass Firewall Kernel Inspection and are rejected by the rule definition, packets are:

Question62: You want to establish a VPN, using certificates. Your VPN will exchange certificates with an external partner. Which of the following activities sh you do first?

Question63: What is the purpose of Captive Portal?

Question64: A Cleanup rule:

Question65: What is Consolidation Policy?

Question66: If there is an Accept Implied Policy set to "First", what is the reason Jorge cannot see any logs?

Question67: Study the Rule base and Client Authentication Action properties screen.


After being authenticated by the Security Gateways, a user starts a HTTP connection to a Web site. What happens when the user tries to FTP to another site using the command line? The:

Question68: What is Identity Sharing?

Question69: How many packets does the IKE exchange use for Phase 1 Main Mode?

Question70: Why would an administrator see the message below?

Question71: Review the following screenshot and select the BEST answer.

Question72: Which one of the following is the preferred licensing model? Select the Best answer.

Question73: Which deployment adds a Security Gateway to an existing environment without changing IP routing?

Question74: What does it mean if Bob gets this result on an object search? Refer to the image below. Choose the BEST answer.

Question75: Which of the following Automatically Generated Rules NAT rules have the lowest implementation priority?

Question76: You believe Phase 2 negotiations are failing while you are attempting to configure a site-to-site VPN with one of your firm's business partners. Which SmartConsole application should you use to confirm your suspicious?

Question77: Fill in the blank: Back up and restores can be accomplished through_________.

Question78: Match the following commands to their correct function. Each command has one function only listed.

Question79: Which command can you use to verify the number of active concurrent connections?

Question80: Fill in the blank: The ________ feature allows administrators to share a policy with other policy packages.

Question81: Which one of the following is TRUE?

Question82: Which firewall daemon is responsible for the FW CLI commands?

Question83: How Capsule Connect and Capsule Workspace differ?

Question84: Web Control Layer has been set up using the settings in the following dialogue:

Consider the following policy and select the BEST answer.

Question85: Jennifer McHanry is CEO of ACME. She recently bought her own personal iPad. She wants use her iPad to access the internal Finance Web server. Because the iPad is not a member of the Active Directory domain, she cannot identify seamlessly with AD Query. However, she can enter her AD credentials in the Captive Portal and then get the same access as on her office computer. Her access to resources is based on rules in the R77 Firewall Rule Base.
To make this scenario work, the IT administrator must:
1) Enable Identity Awareness on a gateway and select Captive Portal as one of the Identity Sources.
2) In the Portal Settings window in the User Access section, make sure that Name and password login is selected.
3) Create a new rule in the Firewall Rule Base to let Jennifer McHanry access network destinations. Select accept as the Action.
4) Install policy.
Ms McHanry tries to access the resource but is unable. What should she do?

Question86: View the rule below. What does the lock-symbol in the left column mean? Select the BEST answer.

Question87: The Network Operations Center administrator needs access to Check Point Security devices mostly for troubleshooting purposes. You do not want to give her access to the expert mode, but she still should be able to run tcpdump. How can you achieve this requirement?

Question88: Fill in the blank: The tool _______ generates a R80 Security Gateway configuration report.

Question89: What are the three types of UserCheck messages?

Question90: Which Threat Prevention Profile is not included by default in R80 Management?

Question91: Consider the Global Properties following settings:

The selected option "Accept Domain Name over UDP (Queries)" means:

Question92: What is the difference between an event and a log?

Question93: In which scenario is it a valid option to transfer a license from one hardware device to another?

Question94: The Captive Portal tool:

Question95: You are conducting a security audit. While reviewing configuration files and logs, you notice logs accepting POP3 traffic, but you do not see a rule allowing POP3 traffic in the Rule Base. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

Question96: Fill in the blanks: Default port numbers for an LDAP server is ______ for standard connections and
_______ SSL connections.

Question97: John is the administrator of a R80 Security Management server managing r R77.30 Check Point Security Gateway. John is currently updating the network objects and amending the rules using SmartConsole. To make John's changes available to other administrators, and to save the database before installing a policy, what must John do?

Question98: Which feature is NOT provided by all Check Point Mobile Access solutions?

Question99: You have just installed your Gateway and want to analyze the packet size distribution of your traffic with SmartView Monitor.

Unfortunately, you get the message:
"There are no machines that contain Firewall Blade and SmartView Monitor".
What should you do to analyze the packet size distribution of your traffic? Give the BEST answer.

Question100: When using LDAP as an authentication method for Identity Awareness, the query:

Question101: You are working with multiple Security Gateways enforcing an extensive number of rules. To simplify security administration, which action would you choose?

Question102: Which is NOT an encryption algorithm that can be used in an IPSEC Security Association (Phase 2)?

Question103: Full synchronization between cluster members is handled by Firewall Kernel. Which port is used for this?

Question104: When configuring Spoof Tracking, which tracking actions can an administrator select to be done when spoofed packets are detected?

Question105: Identify the API that is not supported by Check Point currently.

Question106: What are the three essential components of the Check Point Security Management Architecture?

Question107: The SIC Status "Unknown" means

Question108: When configuring LDAP User Directory integration, Changes applied to a User Directory template are:

Question109: Access roles allow the firewall administrator to configure network access according to:

Question110: Which of the following licenses are considered temporary?

Question111: After the initial installation the First Time Configuration Wizard should be run. Select the BEST answer.

Question112: You are going to upgrade from R77 to R80. Before the upgrade, you want to back up the system so that, if there are any problems, you can easily restore to the old version with all configuration and management files intact. What is the BEST backup method in this scenario?

Question113: What command would show the API server status?

Question114: Vanessa is attempting to log into the Gaia Web Portal. She is able to login successfully. Then she tries the same username and password for SmartConsole but gets the message in the screenshot image below.
She has checked that the IP address of the Server is correct and the username and password she used to login into Gaia is also correct.

What is the most likely reason?

Question115: To ensure that VMAC mode is enabled, which CLI command you should run on all cluster members?
Choose the best answer.

Question116: On the following graphic, you will find layers of policies.

What is a precedence of traffic inspection for the defined polices?

Question117: Which of the following actions do NOT take place in IKE Phase 1?

Question118: You have successfully backed up your Check Point configurations without the OS information. What command would you use to restore this backup?

Question119: DLP and Geo Policy are examples of what type of Policy?

Question120: Which type of attack can a firewall NOT prevent?

Question121: In which VPN community is a satellite VPN gateway not allowed to create a VPN tunnel with another satellite VPN gateway?

Question122: Which set of objects have an Authentication tab?

Question123: Check Point ClusterXL Active/Active deployment is used when:

Question124: You want to reset SIC between smberlin and sgosaka.

In SmartDashboard, you choose sgosaka, Communication, Reset. On sgosaka, you start cpconfig, choose Secure Internal Communication and enter the new SIC Activation Key. The screen reads The SIC was successfully initialized and jumps back to the menu. When trying to establish a connection, instead of a working connection, you receive this error message:

What is the reason for this behavior?

Question125: Which two Identity Awareness commands are used to support identity sharing?

Question126: ABC Corp., and have recently returned from a training course on Check Point's new advanced R80 management platform. You are presenting an in-house R80 Management to the other administrators in ABC Corp.

How will you describe the new "Publish" button in R80 Management Console?

Question127: Which command shows the installed licenses?

Question128: If the first packet of an UDP session is rejected by a security policy, what does the firewall send to the client?

Question129: Which utility allows you to configure the DHCP service on GAIA from the command line?

Question130: Fill in the blanks: A security Policy is created in _________ , stored in the _________ , and Distributed to the various __________ .

Question131: Packet acceleration (SecureXL) identifies connections by several attributes. Which of the attributes is NOT used for identifying connection?

Question132: AdminA and AdminB are both logged in on SmartConsole. What does it mean if AdminB sees a locked icon on a rule? Choose the BEST answer.

Question133: Tom has been tasked to install Check Point R80 in a distributed deployment. Before Tom installs the systems this way, how many machines will he need if he does NOT include a SmartConsole machine in his calculations?

Question134: Which of the following is NOT an alert option?

Question135: Which of the following is NOT a role of the SmartCenter:

Question136: R80.10 management server can manage gateways with which versions installed?

Question137: What will be the effect of running the following command on the Security Management Server?

Question138: What are types of Check Point APIs available currently as part of R80.10 code?

Question139: Look at the following screenshot and select the BEST answer.

Question140: Which statement is TRUE of anti-spoofing?

Question141: The CDT utility supports which of the following?

Question142: Your boss wants you to closely monitor an employee suspected of transferring company secrets to the competition. The IT department discovered the suspect installed a WinSCP client in order to use encrypted communication. Which of the following methods is BEST to accomplish this task?

Question143: Which directory holds the SmartLog index files by default?

Question144: Which Check Point software blade provides protection from zero-day and undiscovered threats?

Question145: What is the potential downside or drawback to choosing the Standalone deployment option instead of the Distributed deployment option?

Question146: What is the main difference between Threat Extraction and Threat Emulation?

Question147: Which one of the following is a way that the objects can be manipulated using the new API integration in R80 Management?

Question148: In the R80 SmartConsole, on which tab are Permissions and Administrators defined?

Question149: Choose what BEST describes the reason why querying logs now is very fast.

Question150: Which icon indicates that read/write access is enabled?

Question151: Which is a suitable command to check whether Drop Templates are activated or not?

Question152: Fill in the blank: Each cluster has __________ interfaces.

Question153: What is the most recommended installation method for Check Point appliances?

Question154: Your bank's distributed R77 installation has Security Gateways up for renewal. Which SmartConsole application will tell you which Security Gateways have licenses that will expire within the next 30 days?

Question155: Which policy type is used to enforce bandwidth and traffic control rules?

Question156: True or False: In a Distributed Environment, a Central License can be installed via CLI on a Security Gateway

Question157: What is a reason for manual creation of a NAT rule?

Question158: You are the Security Administrator for MegaCorp. In order to see how efficient your firewall Rule Base is, you would like to see how many often the particular rules match. Where can you see it? Give the BEST answer.

Question159: What two ordered layers make up the Access Control Policy Layer?

Question160: What is the command to see cluster status in cli expert mode?

Question161: Fill in the blank: A _______ is used by a VPN gateway to send traffic as if it were a physical interface.

Question162: What does ExternalZone represent in the presented rule?

Question163: Sally has a Hot Fix Accumulator (HFA) she wants to install on her Security Gateway which operates with GAiA, but she cannot SCP the HFA to the system. She can SSH into the Security Gateway, but she has never been able to SCP files to it. What would be the most likely reason she cannot do so?

Question164: NAT can NOT be configured on which of the following objects?

Question165: Which limitation of CoreXL is overcome by using (mitigated by) Multi-Queue?

Question166: When doing a Stand-Alone Installation, you would install the Security Management Server with which other Check Point architecture component?

Question167: To install a brand new Check Point Cluster, the MegaCorp IT department bought 1 Smart-1 and 2 Security Gateway Appliances to run a cluster. Which type of cluster is it?

Question168: How are the backups stored in Check Point appliances?

Question169: Fill in the blank: RADIUS Accounting gets ______ data from requests generated by the accounting client

Question170: Traffic from source 192.168.1.1 is going to www.google.com. The Application Control Blade on the gateway is inspecting the traffic. Assuming acceleration is enable which path is handling the traffic?

Question171: Which of these statements describes the Check Point ThreatCloud?

Question172: Which of the following is NOT a component of a Distinguished Name?

Question173: Administrator Dave logs into R80 Management Server to review and makes some rule changes. He notices that there is a padlock sign next to the DNS rule in the Rule Base.

What is the possible explanation for this?

Question174: Which Check Point software blade monitors Check Point devices and provides a picture of network and security performance?

Question175: MyCorp has the following NAT rules. You need to disable the NAT function when Alpha-internal networks try to reach the Google DNS (8.8.8.8) server.
What can you do in this case?

Question176: You are using SmartView Tracker to troubleshoot NAT entries. Which column do you check to view the NAT'd source port if you are using Source NAT?

Question177: There are two R77.30 Security Gateways in the Firewall Cluster. They are named FW_A and FW_B. The cluster is configured to work as HA (High availability) with default cluster configuration. FW_A is configured to have higher priority than FW_B. FW_A was active and processing the traffic in the morning. FW_B was standby. Around 1100 am, its interfaces went down and this caused a failover. FW_B became active. After an hour, FW_A's interface issues were resolved and it became operational. When it re-joins the cluster, will it become active automatically?

Question178: When connected to the Check Point R80 Management Server using the SmartConsole the first administrator to connect has a lock on:

Question179: Fill in the blank: A _________ VPN deployment is used to provide remote users with secure access to internal corporate resources by authenticating the user through an internet browser.

Question180: CPU-level of your Security gateway is peaking to 100% causing problems with traffic. You suspect that the problem might be the Threat Prevention settings.
The following Threat Prevention Profile has been created.

How could you tune the profile in order to lower the CPU load still maintaining security at good level?
Select the BEST answer.

Question181: Which two of these Check Point Protocols are used by _____ ?

Question182: Which of the following is NOT a back up method?

Question183: You find that Users are not prompted for authentication when they access their Web servers, even though you have created an HTTP rule via User Authentication. Choose the BEST reason why.

Question184: To fully enable Dynamic Dispatcher on a Security Gateway:

Question185: How would you deploy TE250X Check Point appliance just for email traffic and in-line mode without a Check Point Security Gateway?

Question186: You have discovered suspicious activity in your network. What is the BEST immediate action to take?

Question187: SandBlast offers flexibility in implementation based on their individual business needs. What is an option for deployment of Check Point SandBlast Zero-Day Protection?

Question188: Provide very wide coverage for all products and protocols, with noticeable performance impact.

How could you tune the profile in order to lower the CPU load still maintaining security at good level?
Select the BEST answer.

Question189: Customer's R80 management server needs to be upgraded to R80.10. What is the best upgrade method when the management server is not connected to the Internet?

Question190: What must a Security Administrator do to comply with a management requirement to log all traffic accepted through the perimeter Security Gateway?

Question191: What needs to be configured if the NAT property 'Translate destination on client side' is not enabled in Global properties?

Question192: Which of the following commands is used to verify license installation?

Question193: The security Gateway is installed on GAiA R80 The default port for the WEB User Interface is _______ .

Question194: Which of the following technologies extracts detailed information from packets and stores that information in state tables?

Question195: Katie has been asked to do a backup on the Blue Security Gateway. Which command would accomplish this in the Gaia CLI?

Question196: Which of the following blades is NOT subscription-based and therefore does not have to be renewed on a regular basis?

Question197: To view statistics on detected threats, which Threat Tool would an administrator use?

Question198: Which statement is NOT TRUE about Delta synchronization?

Question199: Which of the following statements accurately describes the command snapshot?

Question200: In SmartEvent, what are the different types of automatic reactions that the administrator can configure?

Question201: The SmartEvent R80 Web application for real-time event monitoring is called:

Question202: Which of the following is NOT an element of VPN Simplified Mode and VPN Communities?

Question203: Which VPN routing option uses VPN routing for every connection a satellite gateway handles?

Question204: The technical-support department has a requirement to access an intranet server. When configuring a User Authentication rule to achieve this, which of the following should you remember?

Question205: The Firewall kernel is replicated multiple times, therefore:

Question206: To enforce the Security Policy correctly, a Security Gateway requires:

Question207: Which of the following is NOT supported by Bridge Mode Check Point Security Gateway

Question208: How do you configure an alert in SmartView Monitor?

Question209: Choose what BEST describes a Session.

Question210: Fill in the blank: When LDAP is integrated with Check Point Security Management, it is then referred to as
_______

Question211: What type of NAT is a one-to-one relationship where each host is translated to a unique address?

Question212: Which of the following is TRUE regarding Gaia command line?

Question213: Fill in the blank: The IPS policy for pre-R80 gateways is installed during the _______ .

Question214: In SmartView Tracker, which rule shows when a packet is dropped due to anti-spoofing?

Question215: Which of the completed statements is NOT true? The WebUI can be used to manage user accounts and:

Question216: Which tool provides a list of trusted files to the administrator so they can specify to the Threat Prevention blade that these files do not need to be scanned or analyzed?

Question217: Fill in the blank: When a policy package is installed, ________ are also distributed to the target installation Security Gateways.

Question218: When defining QoS global properties, which option below is not valid?

Question219: You have enabled "Full Log" as a tracking option to a security rule. However, you are still not seeing any data type information. What is the MOST likely reason?

Question220: Which options are given on features, when editing a Role on Gaia Platform?

Question221: Which of the following is the most secure means of authentication?

Question222: What licensing feature is used to verify licenses and activate new licenses added to the License and Contracts repository?

Question223: In R80 spoofing is defined as a method of:

Question224: Which of the following is used to initially create trust between a Gateway and Security Management Server?

Question225: As you review this Security Policy, what changes could you make to accommodate Rule 4?

Question226: What is the mechanism behind Threat Extraction?

Question227: What does the "unknown" SIC status shown on SmartConsole mean?

Question228: What happens when you run the command: fw sam -J src [Source IP Address]?

Question229: What port is used for communication to the User Center with SmartUpdate?

Question230: Fill in the blank: The R80 utility fw monitoris used to troubleshoot _____________

Question231: Which of the following is NOT an option to calculate the traffic direction?

Question232: What is the most complete definition of the difference between the Install Policy button on the SmartConsole's tab, and the Install Policy within a specific policy?

Question233: What port is used for delivering logs from the gateway to the management server?

Question234: Which Check Point software blade prevents malicious files from entering a network using virus signatures and anomaly-based protections from ThreatCloud?

Question235: Which configuration element determines which traffic should be encrypted into a VPN tunnel vs. sent in the clear?

Question236: Fill in the blank: To build an effective Security Policy, use a ________ and _______ rule.

Question237: Which component functions as the Internal Certificate Authority for R77?

Question238: Can multiple administrators connect to a Security Management Server at the same time?

Question239: Tom has connected to the R80 Management Server remotely using SmartConsole and is in the process of making some Rule Base changes, when he suddenly loses connectivity. Connectivity is restored shortly afterward. What will happen to the changes already made:

Question240: Which Check Point feature enables application scanning and the detection?

Question241: Bob and Joe both have Administrator Roles on their Gaia Platform. Bob logs in on the WebUI and then Joe logs in through CLI. Choose what BEST describes the following scenario, where Bob and Joe are both logged in:

Question242: Which of the following is an identity acquisition method that allows a Security Gateway to identify Active Directory users and computers?

Question243: In the Check Point three-tiered architecture, which of the following is NOT a function of the Security Management Server (Security Management Server)?

Question244: Fill in the blank: To create policy for traffic to or from a particular location, use the _____________.

Question245: You work as a security administrator for a large company. CSO of your company has attended a security conference where he has learnt how hackers constantly modify their strategies and techniques to evade detection and reach corporate resources. He wants to make sure that his company has the right protections in place. Check Point has been selected for the security vendor. Which Check Point products protects BEST against malware and zero-day attacks while ensuring quick delivery of safe content to your users?

Question246: Fill in the blank: Gaia can be configured using the _______ or ______ .

Question247: John is using Management HA. Which Smartcenter should be connected to for making changes?

Question248: The WebUI offers three methods for downloading Hotfixes via CPUSE. One of them is Automatic method.
How many times per day will CPUSE agent check for hotfixes and automatically download them?

Question249: You are about to test some rule and object changes suggested in an R77 news group. Which backup solution should you use to ensure the easiest restoration of your Security Policy to its previous configuration after testing the changes?

Question250: Fill in the blank: The command __________ provides the most complete restoration of a R80 configuration.

Question251: After trust has been established between the Check Point components, what is TRUE about name and IP- address changes?

Question252: What Check Point tool is used to automatically update Check Point products for the Gaia OS?

Question253: Can a Check Point gateway translate both source IP address and destination IP address in a given packet?

Question254: If there are two administrators logged in at the same time to the SmartConsole, and there are objects locked for editing, what must be done to make them available to other administrators? Choose the BEST answer.

Question255: R80 Security Management Server can be installed on which of the following operating systems?

Question256: Fill in the blank: Licenses can be added to the License and Contract repository ________ .

Question257: You can see the following graphic:

What is presented on it?